An Ordinance to establish a Property Management Services Authority; to provide for the licensing of business entities carrying on, and individuals engaged in, the business of providing property management services; to regulate and control the provision of property management services; and to provide for related matters.
[24 October 2016]
(Enacting provision omitted—E.R. 1 of 2017)
(Amended E.R. 4 of 2023)
This Ordinance may be cited as the Property Management Services Ordinance.
(Omitted as spent—E.R. 4 of 2023)
In this Ordinance—
appeal tribunal (上訴審裁小組) means an appeal tribunal appointed under section 35; Authority (監管局) means the Property Management Services Authority established by section 42; Chairperson (主席) means the Chairperson of the Authority appointed under section 2 of Schedule 3; Chief Executive Officer (行政總裁) means the Chief Executive Officer of the Authority appointed under section 7(1)(a) of Schedule 3; committee (委員會), in relation to the Authority, means a committee of the Authority established under section 23(1) or (2) of Schedule 3; company (公司) has the meaning given by section 2(1) of the Companies Ordinance (Cap. 622) and includes—(a)a body corporate incorporated or established by or under any other Ordinance; and(b)a body corporate incorporated or established outside Hong Kong; deed of mutual covenant (公契) has the meaning given by section 2 of the Building Management Ordinance (Cap. 344); disciplinary committee (紀律委員會) means the standing committee established under section 23(1) of Schedule 3; disciplinary offence (違紀行為)—see section 4; former Companies Ordinance (《舊有公司條例》) has the meaning given by section 2(1) of the Companies Ordinance (Cap. 622); licence (牌照) means—(a)a PMC licence;(b)a PMP (Tier 1) licence; or(c)a PMP (Tier 2) licence; licensed PMC (持牌物業管理公司) means the holder of a PMC licence; licensed PMP (持牌物業管理人) means—(a)a licensed PMP (Tier 1); or(b)a licensed PMP (Tier 2); licensed PMP (Tier 1) (持牌物業管理人(第1級)) means the holder of a PMP (Tier 1) licence; licensed PMP (Tier 2) (持牌物業管理人(第2級)) means the holder of a PMP (Tier 2) licence; licensee (持牌人) means the holder of a licence; member (成員), in relation to the Authority, means a member of the Authority appointed under section 2 of Schedule 3; owner (業主) has the meaning given by section 2 of the Building Management Ordinance (Cap. 344); owners’ organization (業主組織), in relation to a property, means an organization (whether or not formed under the Building Management Ordinance (Cap. 344) or a deed of mutual covenant) that is authorized to act on behalf of all the owners of the property; PMC licence (物業管理公司牌照) means a PMC licence issued under section 8(1)(a); PMP (Tier 1) licence (物業管理人(第1級)牌照) means a PMP (Tier 1) licence issued under section 8(1)(b); PMP (Tier 2) licence (物業管理人(第2級)牌照) means a PMP (Tier 2) licence issued under section 8(1)(c); property (物業) means a building as defined by section 2 of the Building Management Ordinance (Cap. 344); property management company (物業管理公司) means a business entity (whether a company, partnership or sole proprietorship) that carries on the business of providing property management services; property management practitioner (物業管理人) means an individual who assumes a managerial or supervisory role in a property management company in relation to property management services provided by the company; property management service (物業管理服務) means any service prescribed by regulation made under section 3(1); Secretary (局長) means the Secretary for Home and Youth Affairs; (Amended L.N. 144 of 2022) Vice-chairperson ( ) means the Vice-chairperson of the Authority appointed under section 2 of Schedule 3.The Authority may, by regulation, prescribe a service falling within a category of services set out in Schedule 1 as a property management service.
In the regulation—
the services must be prescribed with reference to the categories of services set out in Schedule 1; and
more than one type of service may be prescribed under a category.
For the purposes of this Ordinance, a licensee commits a disciplinary offence if—
the licensee commits misconduct or neglect in a professional respect;
the licensee contravenes a condition imposed on the licensee’s licence;
the licensee contravenes a requirement in this Ordinance that is applicable to the licensee;
the licensee, without reasonable excuse, fails to—
comply with a requirement of a notice under section 21(2); or
comply with a summons under section 25(1)(b) or 37(1)(b);
the court determines that the licensee has contravened a requirement in the Building Management Ordinance (Cap. 344) or a deed of mutual covenant that is applicable to the licensee; or
the licensee is convicted in Hong Kong or elsewhere of a criminal offence that—
may bring the profession of property management services into disrepute; and
is punishable with imprisonment (whether or not the licensee was sentenced to imprisonment).
The Authority may issue codes of conduct containing any practical guidance that it considers appropriate for the purposes of section 4.
Without limiting subsection (1), the codes of conduct may specify—
for the purposes of section 4(a), the matters that the Authority considers to be relevant to determining the question of misconduct or neglect committed by a licensee in a professional respect; and
for the purposes of section 4(f), the criminal offences that the Authority considers may bring the profession of property management services into disrepute.
A licensee does not incur a civil or criminal liability only because the licensee has contravened a provision of the codes of conduct.
However, in any proceedings (whether disciplinary, civil or criminal), if the Authority, the disciplinary committee or the court is satisfied that a provision of the codes of conduct is relevant to determining a matter that is in issue in the proceedings—
the codes of conduct are admissible in evidence in the proceedings; and
proof that a licensee contravened or did not contravene the provision may be relied on as tending to establish or negate that matter.
The Authority may amend the codes of conduct, and a reference in this section to the codes is to be construed as including a reference to the codes as so amended.
The Authority must publish the codes of conduct, and the amendments made to them, in the Gazette.
Neither the codes of conduct, nor the amendments made to them, are subsidiary legislation.
No person may, without a PMC licence—
act as a property management company; or
claim to be a licensed PMC.
No person may, without a PMP (Tier 1) licence—
act as a property management practitioner;
claim to be a licensed PMP (Tier 1); or
describe himself or herself as a “registered professional property manager” or “註冊專業物業經理” or use a title in any language that so closely resembles “registered professional property manager” or “註冊專業物業經理” as to be capable of deceiving or misleading any person into believing that the person is a licensed PMP (Tier 1).
No person may, without a PMP (Tier 2) licence—
act as a property management practitioner;
claim to be a licensed PMP (Tier 2); or
describe himself or herself as a “licensed property management officer” or “持牌物業管理主任” or use a title in any language that so closely resembles “licensed property management officer” or “持牌物業管理主任” as to be capable of deceiving or misleading any person into believing that the person is a licensed PMP (Tier 2).
A person who contravenes subsection (1), (2) or (3) commits an offence and is liable—
on conviction on indictment to a fine of $500,000 and to imprisonment for 2 years; or
on summary conviction to a fine at level 6 and to imprisonment for 6 months.
Section 6(1)(a), (2)(a) or (3)(a) does not apply to—
the Hong Kong Housing Authority or an employee of that Authority acting in that capacity; or
a public officer acting in that capacity.
Section 6(1)(a), (2)(a) or (3)(a) does not apply to a property management company whose business does not involve the provision of property management services that—
fall within more than one category of services in the regulation made under section 3(1); or
(if there is more than one type of service under a category of services in the regulation made under section 3(1)) fall within more than one type of service.
Section 6(1)(a), (2)(a) or (3)(a) does not prohibit a person from providing a property outside Hong Kong with property management services.
Section 6(1)(a), (2)(a) or (3)(a) does not prohibit a person from providing advisory services relating to property management services without consideration.
Subject to subsections (7) and (8), section 6(1)(a), (2)(a) or (3)(a) does not prohibit the owners’ organization of a property from providing the property with property management services if no property management company or property management practitioner is engaged by the organization for the purpose.
Subject to subsection (8), section 6(1)(a), (2)(a) or (3)(a) does not prohibit one or more of the owners of a property from providing the property with property management services if—
no property management company or property management practitioner is engaged by the owner or owners for the purpose; and
the owner or owners providing the property management services—
is or are individuals; and
does not or do not provide another property with property management services for profit.
If the owners’ organization of a property, in order to provide the property with property management services, ceases to engage a property management company or property management practitioner, subsection (5) does not apply unless the cessation is approved by a resolution passed at a general meeting of the organization.
Subsections (5) and (6) do not apply to a property that contains 1 500 or more than 1 500 flats as defined by section 2 of the Building Management Ordinance (Cap. 344).
Section 6(2) does not apply to the holder of a provisional PMP (Tier 1) licence issued under section 1(1)(a) of Schedule 4.
Section 6(3) does not apply to the holder of a provisional PMP (Tier 2) licence issued under section 1(1)(b) of Schedule 4.
The Authority may, on application, issue—
a PMC licence;
a PMP (Tier 1) licence; or
a PMP (Tier 2) licence.
A PMC licence may only be issued to a company, a partnership or an individual carrying on business as a sole proprietor.
A PMP (Tier 1) licence or PMP (Tier 2) licence may only be issued to an individual.
A licence is not transferable.
A licence remains in force until the end of the period specified in it.
The period specified under subsection (5) must not be longer than 36 months beginning on the date on which the licence is issued.
An application for a licence—
must be made to the Authority in the specified form;
must contain the prescribed information; and
must be accompanied by the prescribed documents and application fee.
The Authority must not issue a licence unless—
the Authority is satisfied that—
the applicant is a suitable person to hold the licence; and
the applicant meets all the prescribed criteria for holding the licence; and
the applicant has paid the prescribed fee for the issue of the licence.
The Authority may impose on a licence those conditions, including prescribed conditions, that it considers appropriate.
If the Authority decides not to issue a licence, it must, by notice in writing given to the applicant within 21 days beginning on the date on which the decision is made—
notify the applicant of the decision; and
give reasons for the decision.
An application for the renewal of a licence—
must be made to the Authority in the specified form—
for a PMC licence, within 6 to 9 months before the expiry of the licence; or
for a PMP (Tier 1) licence or PMP (Tier 2) licence, within 3 to 6 months before the expiry of the licence;
must contain the prescribed information; and
must be accompanied by the prescribed documents and application fee.
The Authority must not renew a licence unless—
the Authority is satisfied that—
the applicant is a suitable person to hold the licence; and
the applicant meets all the prescribed criteria for holding the licence; and
the applicant has paid the prescribed fee for the issue of the renewed licence.
The Authority may impose on a renewed licence those conditions, including prescribed conditions, that it considers appropriate.
A renewed licence is not transferable.
A renewed licence remains in force until the end of the period specified in it.
The period specified under subsection (5) must not be longer than 36 months beginning on the date on which the renewed licence is issued.
A licence may be renewed more than once.
Subject to subsection (9), a licence in respect of which an application for renewal is made under this section and which, but for this subsection, would have expired before the determination of the application remains in force until the determination by the Authority of the application.
Subsection (8) does not apply if—
the application is made after the period specified in subsection (1)(a)(i) or (ii);
the application is withdrawn; or
the licence is revoked or suspended under section 26.
If a licensed PMC does not apply for the renewal of the PMC’s licence within the period specified in subsection (1)(a)(i), the Authority must, by notice in writing given to the owners or owners’ organizations of the property for which the PMC provides property management services, inform the owners or organizations of that fact.
If an application for the renewal of a licence is made after the period specified in subsection (1)(a)(i) or (ii) but before the expiry of the licence, the Authority—
may accept the application if the Authority considers that there is a good reason for doing so; and
may extend the validity of the licence for a period not exceeding 6 months, subject to any prescribed fees the Authority may charge and any conditions the Authority may impose.
If the Authority decides not to renew a licence—
the Authority must, by notice in writing given to the applicant within 21 days beginning on the date on which the decision is made—
notify the applicant of the decision; and
give reasons for the decision; and
for a PMC licence, the Authority may extend the validity of the licence for a period not exceeding 6 months, subject to any prescribed fees the Authority may charge and any conditions the Authority may impose.
In this section—
officer (高級人員) has the meaning given by section 2(1) of the Companies Ordinance (Cap. 622).For the purposes of sections 9(2)(a)(i) and 10(2)(a)(i), in determining whether a person is a suitable person to hold a PMC licence, the Authority must have regard to the following—
for an individual—
whether the individual is an undischarged bankrupt;
whether, in the 5 years before the relevant application, the individual has entered into a composition or scheme of arrangement with the individual’s creditors;
whether the individual is a mentally disordered person, or a patient, within the meaning of section 2(1) of the Mental Health Ordinance (Cap. 136);
whether the individual has been convicted of a criminal offence (other than an offence under this Ordinance) involving fraud or dishonesty;
whether the individual has been convicted of a disciplinary offence or a criminal offence under this Ordinance;
whether the individual is or was the sole proprietor of a property management company whose application for a PMC licence has been refused or whose PMC licence has been revoked or suspended;
whether the individual is or was an officer of, or a partner in, a property management company whose application for a PMC licence has been refused or whose PMC licence has been revoked or suspended;
for a company—
whether the company is in liquidation or is the subject of a winding-up order;
whether a receiver has been appointed in relation to the company;
whether, in the 5 years before the relevant application, the company has entered into a composition or scheme of arrangement with its creditors;
whether the company has been convicted of a criminal offence (other than an offence under this Ordinance) involving fraud or dishonesty;
whether the company has been convicted of a disciplinary offence or a criminal offence under this Ordinance;
whether every director of the company is a suitable person to be associated with the company’s business of providing property management services;
for a partnership—
whether any partner in the partnership is an undischarged bankrupt;
whether any partner in the partnership is in liquidation or is the subject of a winding-up order;
whether a receiver has been appointed in relation to any partner in the partnership;
whether, in the 5 years before the relevant application, any partner in the partnership has entered into a composition or scheme of arrangement with the partner’s creditors;
whether any partner in the partnership is a mentally disordered person, or a patient, within the meaning of section 2(1) of the Mental Health Ordinance (Cap. 136);
whether any partner in the partnership has been convicted of a criminal offence (other than an offence under this Ordinance) involving fraud or dishonesty;
whether any partner in the partnership has been convicted of a disciplinary offence or a criminal offence under this Ordinance;
whether any partner in the partnership is or was the sole proprietor of a property management company whose application for a PMC licence has been refused or whose PMC licence has been revoked or suspended;
whether any partner in the partnership is or was an officer of, or a partner in, a property management company whose application for a PMC licence has been refused or whose PMC licence has been revoked or suspended.
For the purposes of sections 9(2)(a)(i) and 10(2)(a)(i), in determining whether an individual is a suitable person to hold a PMP (Tier 1) licence or PMP (Tier 2) licence, the Authority must have regard to the following—
whether the individual is a mentally disordered person, or a patient, within the meaning of section 2(1) of the Mental Health Ordinance (Cap. 136);
whether the individual has been convicted of a criminal offence (other than an offence under this Ordinance) involving fraud or dishonesty;
whether the individual has been convicted of a disciplinary offence or a criminal offence under this Ordinance;
whether the individual is or was the sole proprietor of a property management company whose application for a PMC licence has been refused or whose PMC licence has been revoked or suspended;
whether the individual is or was an officer of, or a partner in, a property management company whose application for a PMC licence has been refused or whose PMC licence has been revoked or suspended.
For the purposes of subsection (2)(b)(vi), in determining whether a director of a company is a suitable person to be associated with the company’s business of providing property management services, the Authority must have regard to the following—
for a director that is an individual—
whether the director is an undischarged bankrupt;
whether, in the 5 years before the relevant application, the director has entered into a composition or scheme of arrangement with the director’s creditors;
whether the director is a mentally disordered person, or a patient, within the meaning of section 2(1) of the Mental Health Ordinance (Cap. 136);
whether the director has been convicted of a criminal offence (other than an offence under this Ordinance) involving fraud or dishonesty;
whether the director has been convicted of a disciplinary offence or a criminal offence under this Ordinance;
whether the director is or was the sole proprietor of a property management company whose application for a PMC licence has been refused or whose PMC licence has been revoked or suspended;
whether the director is or was an officer of, or a partner in, a property management company whose application for a PMC licence has been refused or whose PMC licence has been revoked or suspended;
for a director that is a company—
whether the director is in liquidation or is the subject of a winding-up order;
whether a receiver has been appointed in relation to the director;
whether, in the 5 years before the relevant application, the director has entered into a composition or scheme of arrangement with the director’s creditors;
whether the director has been convicted of a criminal offence (other than an offence under this Ordinance) involving fraud or dishonesty;
whether the director has been convicted of a disciplinary offence or a criminal offence under this Ordinance;
whether the director is or was an officer of another company whose application for a PMC licence has been refused or whose PMC licence has been revoked or suspended.
The Authority must, from time to time by notice published in the Gazette, publish a list of licensees (including their names and licence numbers).
A notice published under subsection (1) is not subsidiary legislation.
The Authority must keep—
a PMC register;
a PMP (Tier 1) register; and
a PMP (Tier 2) register.
The PMC register must, for each licensed PMC, contain—
the name and address of the PMC;
if the PMC is incorporated under the Companies Ordinance (Cap. 622) or a former Companies Ordinance, the date of the incorporation of the PMC;
if the PMC is neither incorporated under the Companies Ordinance (Cap. 622) nor incorporated under a former Companies Ordinance, the date on which the PMC commences business, as stated in the PMC’s application for registration under the Business Registration Ordinance (Cap. 310);
the PMC’s licence number;
the period for which the PMC’s licence is issued and, if applicable—
the period for which the licence is renewed; and
the date on which the licence is revoked or suspended;
the number (given in the form of a range) of licensed PMPs employed by the PMC;
the number (given in the form of a range) of household units—
that, under one or more deeds of mutual covenant, may be used for residential purposes; and
for which property management services are provided by the PMC;
if the PMC is a company, the conviction record of the PMC (if any) in relation to disciplinary offences or criminal offences under this Ordinance;
if the PMC is not a company, subject to section 2 of the Rehabilitation of Offenders Ordinance (Cap. 297), the conviction record of the PMC (if any) in relation to disciplinary offences or criminal offences under this Ordinance; and
any other particulars the Authority considers appropriate.
The PMP (Tier 1) register must, for each licensed PMP (Tier 1), contain—
the name of the PMP;
the PMP’s licence number;
the period for which the PMP’s licence is issued and, if applicable—
the period for which the licence is renewed; and
the date on which the licence is revoked or suspended;
a statement as to whether or not the PMP is a director of a licensed PMC;
subject to section 2 of the Rehabilitation of Offenders Ordinance (Cap. 297), the conviction record of the PMP (if any) in relation to disciplinary offences or criminal offences under this Ordinance; and
any other particulars the Authority considers appropriate.
The PMP (Tier 2) register must, for each licensed PMP (Tier 2), contain—
the name of the PMP;
the PMP’s licence number;
the period for which the PMP’s licence is issued and, if applicable—
the period for which the licence is renewed; and
the date on which the licence is revoked or suspended;
a statement as to whether or not the PMP is a director of a licensed PMC;
subject to section 2 of the Rehabilitation of Offenders Ordinance (Cap. 297), the conviction record of the PMP (if any) in relation to disciplinary offences or criminal offences under this Ordinance; and
any other particulars the Authority considers appropriate.
For the purpose specified in subsection (6), the Authority must make the PMC register, PMP (Tier 1) register and PMP (Tier 2) register available for inspection free of charge—
at the offices of the Authority during ordinary business hours;
through the Internet or a similar electronic network; and
in any other manner the Authority considers appropriate.
The purpose is to enable a member of the public to ascertain the following—
whether a business entity is a licensed PMC;
whether an individual is a licensed PMP;
the particulars of a licensed PMC or licensed PMP.
For subsection (5)(b), the contents of the PMC register, PMP (Tier 1) register or PMP (Tier 2) register available on the Internet or similar electronic network must not include particulars of a record mentioned in subsection (2)(i), (3)(e) or (4)(e).
A person may, on payment of the prescribed fee, obtain from the Authority a copy of the whole or a part of a register kept by the Authority under subsection (2) (except paragraph (i)), subsection (3) (except paragraph (e)) or subsection (4) (except paragraph (e)).
A person commits an offence if—
the person, in connection with an application for a licence or the renewal of a licence, provides any information or document to the Authority that is false or misleading in a material particular; and
the person knows that, or is reckless as to whether, the information or document is false or misleading in a material particular.
A person who commits an offence under subsection (1) is liable—
on conviction on indictment to a fine of $200,000 and to imprisonment for 1 year; or
on summary conviction to a fine at level 6 and to imprisonment for 6 months.
The Authority may, by regulation, prescribe—
the information to be contained in, and the documents to accompany, an application for a licence or the renewal of a licence;
the fees payable in an application for a licence or the renewal of a licence;
the criteria for holding a licence;
the fees payable for the issue of a licence or renewed licence;
the fees payable for the extension of the validity of a licence under section 10(11)(b) or (12)(b);
the conditions that may be imposed on a licence or renewed licence; and
the fees payable for a copy under section 13(8).
The criteria mentioned in subsection (1)(c)—
for a PMC licence, may include a criterion that the person has a sufficient number of directors and employees who are licensed PMPs; and
for a PMP (Tier 1) licence or PMP (Tier 2) licence—
may include criteria relating to the person’s academic qualifications, professional qualifications and relevant work experience; and
may impose more stringent requirements for a PMP (Tier 1) licence.
In this section—
client (客户), in relation to a property for which a licensed PMC provides property management services, means—(a)the owners’ organization of the property; and(b)the owners of the property who pay or are liable to pay the management expenses in respect of the services.A licensed PMC must—
prepare the prescribed information in respect of each property for which the PMC provides property management services; and
provide the PMC’s clients in each property for which the PMC provides property management services with the prescribed information relating to the property in the prescribed manners.
The Authority may, by regulation, prescribe the information and manners for the purposes of subsection (2).
The regulation may prescribe different manners for different prescribed information.
The prescribed information may include any of the following information that relates to the property for which a licensed PMC provides property management services—
the PMC’s draft budget, budget, revised budget, books, records and accounts;
the PMC’s income and expenditure account and balance sheet;
the PMC’s financial records and statement;
any conflict between the interests of the PMC and the interests of the PMC’s clients.
The prescribed manners in which a licensed PMC must provide the prescribed information relating to the property for which the PMC provides property management services may include—
sending a copy of the prescribed information to the owners’ organization of the property (if any);
displaying a copy of the prescribed information in a prominent place in the property;
allowing the PMC’s clients in the property to inspect the prescribed information;
on request by the PMC’s clients in the property and on payment of a reasonable copying fee, supplying the clients with a copy of the prescribed information.
A licensee must notify the Authority in writing of any change in the prescribed matters in the prescribed manner.
The Authority may, by regulation, prescribe the matters and manner for the purposes of subsection (1).
The Authority may conduct an investigation into any conduct of a licensee if—
the Authority has reasonable cause to suspect that—
the licensee has committed a disciplinary offence; or
the licensee no longer meets any of the prescribed criteria for holding the licence; or
the Authority has received a complaint against the licensee, alleging a matter mentioned in paragraph (a)(i) or (ii).
The Authority is not required to conduct an investigation to deal with a complaint received under subsection (1)(b) if the Authority is satisfied that the complaint is misconceived or lacking in substance.
If the Authority decides not to conduct an investigation to deal with a complaint, it must, as soon as practicable after it makes the decision, by notice in writing given to the complainant—
notify the complainant of the decision; and
give reasons for the decision.
The Authority must, as soon as practicable after it decides to conduct an investigation into any conduct of a licensee, notify the licensee in writing of the substance of the matter being investigated.
For the purposes of section 18(1)(b), the Authority may issue guidelines indicating—
the manner and form in which a complaint is to be lodged with the Authority; and
the particulars that a complaint must contain.
The Authority may amend the guidelines, and a reference in this section to the guidelines is to be construed as including a reference to the guidelines as so amended.
The guidelines, and the amendments made to them, may be published in any manner the Authority considers appropriate.
Neither the guidelines, nor the amendments made to them, are subsidiary legislation.
The Authority may in writing appoint any of its employees, or any other person, as an investigator for the purposes of an investigation under section 18.
This section applies if an investigator appointed under section 20 has reasonable cause to suspect that a person—
has or may have possession or control of information or documents relevant to the investigation; or
may otherwise be able to assist the investigator in relation to the investigation.
The investigator may, by notice in writing given to the person, require the person—
to provide the investigator with any information relating to a matter the investigator reasonably believes to be relevant to the investigation;
to provide the investigator with any document relating to a matter the investigator reasonably believes to be relevant to the investigation;
to attend before the investigator at a specified time and place, and answer any question relating to a matter the investigator reasonably believes to be relevant to the investigation; or
to respond to any written question relating to a matter the investigator reasonably believes to be relevant to the investigation.
A notice under subsection (2) must indicate the subject matter and purpose of the investigation.
The investigator may also specify in the notice—
the time and place at which the information or document is to be provided; and
the manner and form in which the information or document is to be provided.
The power under this section to require a person to provide information includes—
if the information is recorded otherwise than in a legible form, the power to require the production of a copy of the information in a visible and legible form or in a form from which it can readily be produced in a visible and legible form; and
if the information is stored electronically, the power to require—
the provision of instructions on the operation of the equipment containing the information; and
the provision of the appropriate system for reducing the information into a written form on paper.
The power under this section to require a person to provide a document includes—
if the document is provided, the power—
to make copies of it or to take extracts from it; or
to require that person, or any other person who is or was an officer (as defined by section 2(1) of the Companies Ordinance (Cap. 622)), employee or partner of that person, to give an explanation of or further particulars about the document; and
if the document is not provided, the power to require that person to state, to the best of the person’s knowledge and belief, where it is.
A person commits an offence if the person, without reasonable excuse, fails to comply with a requirement of a notice given to the person under section 21(2).
A person commits an offence if—
the person, in purported compliance with a requirement of a notice given to the person under section 21(2), provides any information or document, gives any answer, response, explanation or particular, or makes any statement, that is false or misleading in a material particular; and
the person knows that, or is reckless as to whether, the information, document, answer, response, explanation, particular or statement is false or misleading in a material particular.
A person who commits an offence under subsection (1) or (2) is liable—
on conviction on indictment to a fine of $200,000 and to imprisonment for 1 year; or
on summary conviction to a fine at level 6 and to imprisonment for 6 months.
In this section—
specified act (指明作為) means to provide information or a document, to answer a question, to respond to a written question, or to give an explanation of or further particulars about a document, under section 21.A person is not excused from doing a specified act only on the ground that to do so might tend to incriminate the person.
If the investigator appointed under section 20 requires a person to do a specified act, the investigator must ensure that the person has first been informed or reminded of the limitations imposed by subsection (4) on the admissibility in evidence of—
the investigator’s requirement; and
the information or document provided, or the answer, response, explanation or particulars given, by the person (subject matter).
If the conditions specified in subsection (5) are satisfied, the investigator’s requirement and the subject matter are not admissible in evidence against the person in criminal proceedings, other than those in which the person is charged with any of the following offences in respect of the subject matter—
an offence under section 22;
an offence under Part V of the Crimes Ordinance (Cap. 200).
The conditions are—
the subject matter might tend to incriminate the person; and
the person so claims before providing or giving the subject matter.
If, at the conclusion of an investigation under section 18, the Authority is satisfied that there is evidence that tends to establish the matter mentioned in section 18(1)(a)(i) or (ii) in respect of a licensee, the Authority may decide that a hearing into the matter should be conducted.
The matter is to be heard by—
the Authority; or
on the Authority’s direction, the disciplinary committee.
The Authority must, as soon as practicable after it decides that a hearing should be conducted, notify the licensee in writing of the decision.
The Authority has the following powers when hearing a matter under section 24—
to take evidence on oath;
to summon a person to—
attend the hearing as a witness;
give evidence; and
provide any information or document in the person’s possession or under the person’s control that may be relevant to the hearing;
to examine witnesses;
to receive and consider any material, whether by way of oral evidence, written statements, documents or otherwise, and whether or not the material would be admissible in civil or criminal proceedings;
to award to a witness the expenses that, in the Authority’s opinion, the witness has reasonably incurred because of the witness’s attendance.
At the hearing, the case against the licensee is to be presented by—
the complainant or the complainant’s legal representative;
the Chief Executive Officer, or any other employee of the Authority appointed by it for the hearing; or
a solicitor or counsel engaged by the Authority.
Subject to subsection (4), the hearing is to be held in public.
After consulting the licensee and the complainant (if any), the Authority may, on application by any of the parties to the hearing, by order direct that the hearing, or any part of the hearing, be held in private.
If the Authority makes an order under subsection (4), it may also by order prohibit or restrict the publication or disclosure by all or any of the persons present at the hearing of—
any evidence given at the hearing; or
any matter contained in any information or document provided or received in evidence at the hearing.
For the purposes of subsection (4), the Authority must take into account the views or private interests of the licensee and of the complainant (if any), including any claims as to privilege.
If a person fails to comply with an order made under subsection (5), the Authority—
for a person who is a licensee, may make any of the orders described in section 26(1) against the person; or
for a person who is not a licensee, may give the person a public reprimand.
A party to the hearing—
may, subject to any order made by the Authority, be present at the hearing; and
may participate—
in person;
through a legal representative; or
with the consent of the Authority, through any other person.
For the purposes of subsection (8)(b)(i), a company is to be regarded as participating in person if it participates through any of its directors.
Subject to other provisions of this section, the Authority may conduct the hearing in any manner it considers appropriate.
If, at the conclusion of a hearing under section 24, the Authority is satisfied that the matter mentioned in section 18(1)(a)(i) or (ii) is established in respect of a licensee, the Authority may make any of the following orders against the licensee—
an order giving a verbal warning or written reprimand;
an order imposing a penalty not exceeding the amount specified in Schedule 2;
an order imposing a condition on the licence;
an order varying a condition of the licence;
an order suspending the licence for a specified period or until a specified event occurs;
an order revoking the licence.
If the Authority makes an order under subsection (1) against a licensee, it may also order the licensee to pay the costs and expenses incurred in relation to the hearing, whether by the Authority or any person attending the hearing as a witness.
If the Authority makes an order under subsection (1) or (2) against a licensee, it must—
by notice in writing given to the licensee within 21 days beginning on the date on which the order is made—
notify the licensee of the order; and
give reasons for the order; and
publish notice of the order in the Gazette.
An order made under subsection (1) or (2) takes effect on—
the date of the order; or
if a later date is specified in the order, that later date.
Subsection (4) applies even if—
an application has been made under subsection (6) to revoke, vary or suspend the order;
the licensee has lodged a notice of appeal under section 34 against the order;
the time for lodging the notice of appeal has not expired; or
a notice of the order has not been published in the Gazette.
Subject to subsection (7), the Authority may, of its own volition or on application, by order revoke, vary or suspend an order made under subsection (1) or (2).
Before making an order under subsection (6), the Authority must satisfy itself, so far as it can reasonably do so, that the order would not unfairly prejudice any person.
The penalty, costs and expenses mentioned in subsections (1)(b) and (2) are recoverable as a civil debt.
In this section—
specified act (指明作為) means to give evidence, or to provide information or a document, under section 25.If the Authority requires a person attending a hearing before the Authority as a witness to do a specified act, the person is not excused from doing the act only on the ground that to do so might tend to incriminate the person.
However, if the evidence given, or the information or document provided, by the person (subject matter) tends to incriminate the person, the Authority’s requirement and the subject matter are not admissible in evidence against the person in criminal proceedings, other than those in which the person is charged with any of the following offences in respect of the subject matter—
an offence under section 30;
an offence under Part V of the Crimes Ordinance (Cap. 200).
If a matter is heard by the disciplinary committee under section 24, sections 25, 26 and 27, with necessary modifications, apply to the committee as they apply to the Authority.
A summons under section 25(1)(b)—
must be in the specified form; and
must be signed—
if the matter is heard by the Authority, by the Chairperson; or
if the matter is heard by the disciplinary committee, by the chairperson of the committee.
A person commits an offence if—
the person, at a hearing under section 24, gives any evidence, or provides any information or document, that is false or misleading in a material particular; and
the person knows that, or is reckless as to whether, the evidence, information or document is false or misleading in a material particular.
A person commits an offence if the person, without reasonable excuse, fails to comply with a summons issued to the person under section 25(1)(b).
A person who commits an offence under subsection (1) or (2) is liable—
on conviction on indictment to a fine of $200,000 and to imprisonment for 1 year; or
on summary conviction to a fine at level 6 and to imprisonment for 6 months.
A revocation or suspension of a licence under section 25(7)(a) or 26(1)(e) or (f) does not operate—
to avoid or affect an agreement, transaction or arrangement entered into by the licensee whether the agreement, transaction or arrangement was entered into before or after the revocation or suspension; or
to affect a right, obligation or liability arising under the agreement, transaction or arrangement.
A person who, in connection with an investigation under section 18, gives evidence to the Authority or an investigator appointed under section 20 has the same privileges and immunities as the person would have if the investigation were civil proceedings in the Court of First Instance.
In subsection (1), the reference to the giving of evidence includes a reference to providing any information or document, giving any answer, response, explanation or particular, and making any statement.
For hearing appeals under this Part, the Secretary must appoint a panel of individuals consisting of 1 chairperson and 11 other members.
A member of the Authority is not eligible for appointment under subsection (1).
A person aggrieved by any of the following matters may lodge an appeal against the matter—
a decision not to issue or renew a licence;
a decision to impose conditions on a licence or renewed licence;
a decision regarding the period for which a licence is issued or renewed;
a finding made at a hearing under section 24;
an order made under section 25(7)(a) or 26(1) or (2) by the Authority or the disciplinary committee.
A person who wishes to appeal against a matter under subsection (1) must lodge a notice in writing with the Secretary—
for a matter that falls within subsection (1)(a), (b) or (c), within 21 days after receiving notice of the decision;
for a matter that falls within subsection (1)(d), within 21 days after the finding is made; or
for a matter that falls within subsection (1)(e), within 21 days after receiving notice of the order.
As soon as practicable after a notice of appeal has been lodged under section 34, the chairperson of the panel appointed under section 33(1) must appoint from the panel an appeal tribunal consisting of the following persons to hear the appeal—
1 individual as the chairperson of the tribunal; and
2 individuals as the other members of the tribunal.
The chairperson of an appeal tribunal must—
fix the date, time and place for the hearing of the appeal so that the hearing can commence as soon as practicable; and
not later than 28 days before the date so fixed, give the parties to the appeal a notice of the date, time and place so fixed in the form the chairperson determines.
An appeal tribunal has the following powers when hearing an appeal—
to take evidence on oath;
to summon a person to—
attend the hearing as a witness;
give evidence; and
provide any information or document in the person’s possession or under the person’s control that may be relevant to the hearing;
to examine witnesses;
to receive and consider any material, whether by way of oral evidence, written statements, documents or otherwise, and whether or not the material would be admissible in civil or criminal proceedings;
to award to a witness the expenses that, in the tribunal’s opinion, the witness has reasonably incurred because of the witness’s attendance.
Subject to subsection (3), the hearing is to be held in public.
After consulting the parties to the appeal, the chairperson of the tribunal may, on application by any of the parties, by order direct that the hearing, or any part of the hearing, be held in private.
If the chairperson of the tribunal makes an order under subsection (3), the chairperson may also by order prohibit or restrict the publication or disclosure by all or any of the persons present at the hearing of—
any evidence given at the hearing; or
any matter contained in any information or document provided or received in evidence at the hearing.
For the purposes of subsection (3), the chairperson of the tribunal must take into account the views or private interests of the parties to the appeal, including any claims as to privilege.
If a person fails to comply with an order made under subsection (4), the chairperson of the tribunal—
for a person who is a licensee, may make any of the orders described in section 26(1)(a), (b), (e) and (f) against the person; or
for a person who is not a licensee, may give the person a public reprimand.
A party to the hearing—
may, subject to any order made by the chairperson of the tribunal, be present at the hearing; and
may participate—
in person;
through a legal representative; or
with the consent of the chairperson of the tribunal, through any other person.
For the purposes of subsection (7)(b)(i), a company is to be regarded as participating in person if it participates through any of its directors.
Subject to other provisions of this section and any regulation made under section 39, the chairperson of the tribunal may conduct the hearing in any manner the chairperson considers appropriate.
An appeal tribunal hearing an appeal—
may confirm, vary or reverse any decision, finding or order to which the appeal relates; and
may make an order as to the payment of the costs and expenses incurred in relation to the hearing, whether by the tribunal, any party to the hearing, or any person attending the hearing as a witness.
The decision of the tribunal is final.
The Secretary may, by regulation, prescribe the procedures for the hearing of appeals under this Part.
A person commits an offence if—
the person, at a hearing before an appeal tribunal, gives any evidence, or provides any information or document, that is false or misleading in a material particular; and
the person knows that, or is reckless as to whether, the evidence, information or document is false or misleading in a material particular.
A person commits an offence if the person, without reasonable excuse, fails to comply with a summons issued to the person under section 37(1)(b).
A person who commits an offence under subsection (1) or (2) is liable—
on conviction on indictment to a fine of $200,000 and to imprisonment for 1 year; or
on summary conviction to a fine at level 6 and to imprisonment for 6 months.
In this section—
specified act (指明作為) means to give evidence, or to provide information or a document, under section 37.If an appeal tribunal requires a person attending a hearing before the tribunal as a witness to do a specified act, the person is not excused from doing the act only on the ground that to do so might tend to incriminate the person.
However, if the evidence given, or the information or document provided, by the person (subject matter) tends to incriminate the person, the tribunal’s requirement and the subject matter are not admissible in evidence against the person in criminal proceedings, other than those in which the person is charged with any of the following offences in respect of the subject matter—
an offence under section 40;
an offence under Part V of the Crimes Ordinance (Cap. 200).
A body corporate is established with the name “Property Management Services Authority” in English and “物業管理業監管局” in Chinese.
The Authority—
has perpetual succession under its corporate name;
must provide itself with a common seal; and
may sue and be sued in its corporate name.
Schedule 3 (which contains constitutional, administrative and financial provisions) has effect with respect to the Authority.
The principal functions of the Authority are—
to regulate and control the provision of property management services by the licensing of property management companies and property management practitioners;
to promote the integrity, competence and professionalism of the profession of property management services; and
to maintain and enhance the status of the profession of property management services.
The Authority may do anything it considers appropriate for it to do for, or in relation to, the performance of its functions.
The Authority is not a servant or agent of the Government and does not enjoy any status, immunity or privilege of the Government.
A person to whom this subsection applies is not civilly liable for an act done or omitted to be done by the person in good faith—
in performing or purportedly performing a function of the Authority under this Ordinance; or
in exercising or purportedly exercising a power of the Authority under this Ordinance.
Subsection (1) applies to—
a member of the Authority;
a member of a committee of the Authority;
an officer or employee of the Authority; and
a person who is performing any service for the Authority under a contract for services.
Subsection (1) does not affect any liability of the Authority for the act or omission.
A member of the Authority must disclose to the Authority any interest that the member has which is of a class or description determined by the Authority under subsection (3)—
on the member’s first appointment to the Authority;
at the beginning of each calendar year after the member’s appointment;
on becoming aware of the existence of an interest not previously disclosed under this subsection; and
after any change occurs to an interest previously disclosed under this subsection.
A member of a committee of the Authority who is not also a member of the Authority must disclose to the Authority any interest that the member has which is of a class or description determined by the Authority under subsection (3)—
on the member’s first appointment to the committee;
at the beginning of each calendar year after the member’s appointment;
on becoming aware of the existence of an interest not previously disclosed under this subsection; and
after any change occurs to an interest previously disclosed under this subsection.
For the purposes of subsections (1) and (2), the Authority may—
determine the class or description of the interests required to be disclosed;
determine the details of the interest required to be disclosed and the manner in which the interest is to be disclosed; and
from time to time change any matter determined under paragraph (a) or (b).
The Authority must keep a register relating to any disclosure made under subsection (1) or (2).
If a person makes a disclosure under subsection (1) or (2), the Authority must record the person’s name and the particulars of the disclosure in the register, and if a further disclosure is made, the Authority must record the particulars of the further disclosure in the register.
The Authority must make the register available for inspection free of charge—
at the offices of the Authority during ordinary business hours;
through the Internet or a similar electronic network; and
in any other manner the Authority considers appropriate.
A person may, on payment of the prescribed fee, obtain from the Authority a copy of the whole or a part of the register.
The Authority may, by regulation, prescribe the fees payable for a copy under subsection (7).
In this section—
disclosable interest (應披露利害關係) means—(a)a pecuniary interest (whether direct or indirect); or(b)a personal interest greater than that which a person has as a member of the public.If a member of the Authority has a disclosable interest in any matter under discussion at a meeting of the Authority—
the member must disclose the nature of the interest at the meeting; and
the disclosure must be recorded in the minutes.
The following provisions apply in the case of a disclosure under subsection (2)—
if the disclosure is made by the member presiding, the member must vacate the chair during the discussion;
if so required by the majority of the other members present, the member (including one who has vacated the chair under paragraph (a)) must withdraw from the meeting during the discussion;
unless the majority of the other members present determine otherwise, the member (including one who has vacated the chair under paragraph (a)) must not vote on a resolution concerning the matter under discussion or be counted for a quorum.
If—
a matter is being dealt with by circulating written resolutions under section 13 of Schedule 3; and
a member of the Authority has a disclosable interest in the matter,
the member must disclose the nature of the interest by attaching to the papers being circulated a note recording the disclosure.
For the purposes of section 13(1)(c) of Schedule 3, if a member of the Authority has made a disclosure under subsection (4), the member’s signature (if any) is not to be counted unless the Chairperson directs otherwise.
If the member making a disclosure under subsection (4) is the Chairperson, the power under subsection (5) is to be exercised by the Vice-chairperson.
If both the Chairperson and the Vice-chairperson have made a disclosure under subsection (4) on the same matter, section 13 of Schedule 3 does not apply to the matter.
The validity of any proceeding of the Authority is not affected by the failure by a member of the Authority to comply with this section.
Subsections (1), (2), (3) and (8) apply to a member of a committee of the Authority, as if a reference to the Authority in subsections (2) and (8) were a reference to the committee.
The Authority may delegate any of its powers to—
a committee of the Authority;
the Chief Executive Officer; or
the holder of any office in the Authority, designated by the Authority.
However, the following powers must not be delegated—
the power conferred by subsection (1) to delegate;
the power conferred by section 23 of Schedule 3 to establish committees;
the power conferred by this Ordinance to make regulations.
A person purporting to act in accordance with a delegation under subsection (1) is presumed, unless the contrary is proved, to be acting in accordance with the terms of the delegation.
The Chief Executive may give the Authority written directions for performing any of its functions if the Chief Executive is satisfied that it is in the public interest to do so.
The Authority must comply with a direction given under subsection (1).
This section does not enable the Chief Executive to exercise power or control in relation to—
a particular application, or any other matter, with which the Authority or a committee of the Authority is concerned; or
a particular case with which an appeal tribunal is concerned or which is pending.
Directions given under subsection (1) are not subsidiary legislation.
In this Part—
Collector (署長) means the Collector of Stamp Revenue appointed under section 3 of the Stamp Duty Ordinance (Cap. 117); conveyance on sale (售賣轉易契) has the meaning given by section 2(1) of the Stamp Duty Ordinance (Cap. 117); leviable instrument (徵款適用文書) means an instrument for which a levy is payable under section 53(1); payment period (繳款限期), in relation to the levy payable for a leviable instrument, means the period within which the levy is payable under section 54(3); transferee (承讓人), in relation to a leviable instrument, means the person to whom the immovable property concerned is transferred, or in whom the immovable property concerned is vested, under the instrument.This Part applies to a conveyance on sale of immovable property.
A levy at the prescribed amount is payable for an instrument that is—
a conveyance on sale; and
chargeable with stamp duty under head 1(1) in the First Schedule to the Stamp Duty Ordinance (Cap. 117).
A question as to whether or not an instrument falls within the description of subsection (1)(a) and (b) is to be determined in accordance with the Stamp Duty Ordinance (Cap. 117).
The transferee under a leviable instrument is liable to pay the levy payable for the instrument.
For the purposes of subsection (1), if there is more than one transferee under the instrument, the transferees are jointly and severally liable to pay the levy.
The levy is payable within 30 days after the instrument is executed.
The levy is to be collected—
by the Authority; or
for the Authority by—
the Collector; or
any assistant collector appointed under section 3 of the Stamp Duty Ordinance (Cap. 117) and authorized in writing by the Collector.
The levy collected does not form part of the general revenue.
The Authority and the Collector may enter into an agreement for—
the collection by the Collector of the levy for the Authority; and
the transmission by the Collector of the levy to the Authority.
An agreement entered into under subsection (1) is not subsidiary legislation.
If the levy payable for a leviable instrument is not paid within the payment period, the Authority may, without limiting any other remedy of the Authority for recovering the levy—
impose a penalty for the failure to pay the levy; and
issue a certificate, certifying that—
the levy and penalty is due and payable to the Authority; and
the person named on the certificate is liable to pay the levy and penalty.
The certificate must bear the name of the Chief Executive Officer, and is valid if the name of the Chief Executive Officer is printed or signed on it.
The Authority must serve a copy of the certificate on the person affected by the certificate.
A copy of the certificate may be served on a person either personally or by being delivered at, or sent by post to, the person’s last known postal address, or place of abode, business or employment.
If a copy of the certificate is sent by post, it is presumed, unless the contrary is proved, to have been served on the day after the day on which it would have been received in the ordinary course by post.
For the purposes of section 57(1)(a)—
the transferee under the relevant leviable instrument is liable to pay the penalty; and
the amount of the penalty is—
if the levy is paid not later than 1 month after the expiry of the payment period, double the amount of the levy;
if the levy is paid later than 1 month but not later than 2 months after the expiry of the payment period, 4 times the amount of the levy; or
in any other case, 10 times the amount of the levy.
For the purposes of subsection (1)(a), if there is more than one transferee under the instrument, the transferees are jointly and severally liable to pay the penalty.
This section applies if a certificate is issued under section 57(1)(b) in relation to a levy and penalty, and is served in compliance with section 57.
Unless the contrary is proved, the certificate is evidence of the facts certified in it in any proceedings.
At any time before the levy and penalty has been wholly recovered, the Authority may register the certificate in the Land Registry against any premises or land in respect of which the levy and penalty arose.
For the purposes of the Land Registration Ordinance (Cap. 128), the certificate is taken to be an instrument affecting premises or land and is registrable in the Land Registry.
On the registration of the certificate, the levy and penalty—
is recoverable from a person who from the Land Registry register appears to be the owner of the premises or land; and
constitutes a legal charge on the premises or land that gives the Authority the same powers and remedies in respect of the premises or land as if it were a mortgagee under a mortgage by deed in common form having powers of sale and lease and of appointing a receiver.
Despite sections 3(1) and 5 of the Land Registration Ordinance (Cap. 128), if the certificate is duly registered, it has priority from the beginning of the day after the date of registration.
The charge created under subsection (5)(b) is void, and no liability is to accrue under that subsection, against a bona fide purchaser or mortgagee of the premises or land for valuable consideration without notice.
On the recovery of the levy and penalty, the Authority must lodge in the Land Registry an appropriate memorial of satisfaction against the certificate registered under subsection (3).
The Authority may recover the amount of any levy or penalty payable under this Part as a civil debt due to it.
The Authority may—
remit, wholly or in part, any levy or penalty payable for a leviable instrument; or
refund, wholly or in part, any levy or penalty paid for a leviable instrument.
The Secretary may, by regulation—
prescribe the amount of levy payable for a leviable instrument;
provide for the exemption of any class of persons or instruments from the application of this Part; and
provide generally for the better carrying out of this Part.
It is a defence for a licensed PMP charged with a disciplinary offence for an act done or omitted to be done under this Ordinance to prove that—
the PMP took all reasonable steps and exercised all due diligence to avoid committing the offence;
the PMP did the act or made the omission in the course of the PMP’s employment;
the PMP did the act or made the omission in accordance with the instructions given to the PMP by or on behalf of the PMP’s employer in the course of the PMP’s employment; and
the PMP was not, at the time the act was done or omitted to be done, in a position to make or influence a decision regarding the act or omission.
A party, solicitor, counsel, witness or any other person who appears at a hearing before the Authority or the disciplinary committee under Part 5, or before an appeal tribunal under Part 6, has the same privileges and immunities as the person would have if the hearing were civil proceedings in the Court of First Instance.
Fees paid under this Ordinance are not refundable.
The Authority may, by notice published in the Gazette, amend Schedule 2.
The Secretary may, by notice published in the Gazette, amend Schedule 3.
The transitional provisions specified in Schedule 4 have effect.
(Omitted as spent—E.R. 2 of 2024)
| Column 1 | Column 2 |
| Item | Category of services |
| 1. | General management services relating to a property. |
| 2. | Management of the environment of a property. |
| 3. | Repair, maintenance and improvement of a property. |
| 4. | Finance and asset management relating to a property. |
| 5. | Facility management relating to a property. |
| 6. | Human resources management relating to personnel involved in the management of a property. |
| 7. | Legal services relating to the management of a property. |
In this Schedule—
ordinary member ( ) means an ordinary member of the Authority appointed under section 2 of this Schedule.The Authority is to consist of the following members—
the Chairperson;
the Vice-chairperson;
not more than 18 ordinary members.
Every member of the Authority is to be appointed by the Chief Executive from among the following categories of individuals—
individuals who are engaged in property management services (Category I persons);
individuals, not being Category I persons, who, because of their experience in property management, general administration or consumer affairs, appear to the Chief Executive to have knowledge of property management services (Category II persons);
individuals, not being Category I persons or Category II persons, who appear to the Chief Executive to be suitable to be appointed as members of the Authority (Category III persons).
In appointing a member of the Authority, the Chief Executive must ensure that—
at least half of the ordinary members are Category III persons; and
for the other ordinary members, so far as possible, half of them are Category I persons and half of them are Category II persons.
For subsection (3)(a), if, at any time, the number of ordinary members is odd, that number is to be taken as having been increased by 1.
Public officers are eligible to be appointed as members of the Authority.
Each member of the Authority is to be appointed for a period, not exceeding 3 years, that is specified in the member’s letter of appointment, but is eligible for reappointment.
The Chief Executive may determine the terms of appointment (including remuneration and allowances) of the members of the Authority.
The remuneration and allowances of a member of the Authority are to be paid out of the funds of the Authority.
A member of the Authority may, at any time, resign from office by giving written notice of the resignation to the Chief Executive.
The notice must be signed by the member.
The notice takes effect on—
the date on which the notice is received by the Chief Executive; or
if a later date is specified in the notice, that later date.
The Chief Executive may remove a member of the Authority from office if the Chief Executive considers that the removal is desirable for the Authority to effectively perform its functions.
If a member of the Authority is removed from office under this section, the Chief Executive must give the member written notice informing the member of the removal.
If, for any period, the Chairperson is temporarily absent from Hong Kong or, for any other reason, temporarily unable to perform the functions of the office of Chairperson, the Chairperson may designate the Vice-chairperson to act in the place of the Chairperson during that period.
The Authority may—
appoint a person it considers suitable to be its Chief Executive Officer or other officers or employees; and
engage on a contract for services a person it considers necessary to perform its functions.
The Authority may determine—
the remuneration and other conditions of employment of its staff; and
the remuneration and other conditions of engagement of persons engaged on contracts for services.
The Authority may provide and maintain schemes (whether contributory or not) for the payment of retirement benefits, gratuities or other allowances to its employees or former employees and to their dependants.
Meetings of the Authority are to be held at times and places determined by the Chairperson or, in the Chairperson’s absence, the Vice-chairperson.
The procedure for convening meetings of the Authority and for the conduct of business at those meetings is, subject to this Schedule, to be determined by the Authority.
The quorum for a meeting of the Authority is one-half of its members.
For determining the quorum, a member of the Authority who participates in the meeting by telephone, video conferencing or other electronic means is to be regarded as being present at the meeting if—
that member is able to hear the other members who are actually present at the meeting; and
the members who are actually present at the meeting are able to hear that member.
The Authority must make standing orders, not inconsistent with this Ordinance, for the purposes of regulating the conduct of any meeting to which subsection (2) applies, in order to ensure that the confidentiality of the meeting, if any, is not compromised.
A meeting of the Authority is to be presided over by—
the Chairperson;
if the Chairperson is absent, the Vice-chairperson; or
if both the Chairperson and the Vice-chairperson are absent, one of the members of the Authority elected by the members present.
Subject to subsection (2), each member of the Authority who is present at a meeting of the Authority has 1 vote at the meeting.
The member presiding at a meeting of the Authority has a deliberative vote and also has a casting vote if the number of votes for and against a motion is equal.
The member presiding at a meeting of the Authority must ask each member who is present at the meeting to indicate how he or she has voted.
The result of the vote, showing which way each member has voted, must be recorded in the minutes.
A decision supported by a majority of the votes cast at the meeting of the Authority at which a quorum is present is the decision of the Authority.
The Authority must maintain minutes of the proceedings, including a record of all decisions made, at each meeting of the Authority.
A resolution is a valid resolution of the Authority, even if it is not passed at a meeting of the Authority, if—
it is in writing;
proper notice of it is given to all members of the Authority; and
it is signed, or assented to, by a majority of the members of the Authority by letter, fax or other electronic transmission.
For the purposes of subsection (1), a resolution to which that subsection applies may be—
in the form of one document; or
in the form of more than one document, each in the same form and signed by one or more members of the Authority.
Subject to subsection (4), the date of a resolution referred to in this section is the date on which the last of the members of the Authority constituting a majority of the members signs or assents to the resolution.
If any member of the Authority requests, by written notice addressed to the Chairperson, that a resolution proposed to be made under subsection (1) be referred to a meeting of the Authority for consideration, the proposed resolution must be referred to a meeting of the Authority.
A request under subsection (4) must be made within 14 days after the date on which the notice referred to in subsection (1)(b) is given.
If, in respect of any matter being dealt with by circulating written resolutions, a request is made under subsection (4), any resolution signed, or assented to, under subsection (1)(c) becomes void.
Decisions of the Authority are not invalidated solely by—
a defect in the appointment of a member of the Authority;
a vacancy among the Authority’s members;
the absence of a member of the Authority from the meeting at which the decision was taken; or
an irregularity in the procedures adopted by the Authority that does not affect the merit of the decision taken.
The financial year of the Authority is—
the period beginning on the date on which this section comes into operation and ending on the next 31 March; or
the period of 12 months ending on 31 March in each subsequent year.
The funds of the Authority consist of—
all the money received by the Authority by way of fees, levies and penalties; and
all other money and property, including interest and accumulations of income, lawfully received by the Authority for its purposes.
Any funds of the Authority that are not immediately required by it for the performance of its functions may be—
deposited on fixed term or call deposit or in a savings account in a bank nominated by the Financial Secretary, either generally or in a particular case, for that purpose; or
invested in a manner approved by the Financial Secretary.
The Authority is exempt from taxation under the Inland Revenue Ordinance (Cap. 112).
To avoid doubt, subsection (1) does not apply in relation to any remuneration, benefits or expenses paid out of the funds of the Authority to a member of the Authority.
The Authority must—
keep accounts and other records that accurately record and explain the financial transactions and financial position of the Authority; and
ensure that a statement of accounts is prepared within 3 months, or a longer period the Secretary allows, after the end of each financial year of the Authority.
The statement of accounts must give a true and fair view of—
the state of affairs of the Authority as at the end of that financial year; and
the results of the operations and cash flows of the Authority in that financial year.
As soon as practicable after the date on which this section comes into operation, the Authority must appoint an auditor to audit its statement of accounts.
The auditor must, as soon as practicable after the end of each financial year of the Authority—
audit the accounts and statement of accounts required under section 18 of this Schedule; and
submit a report on the statement of accounts to the Authority.
As soon as practicable, and in any case within 6 months, after the end of each financial year of the Authority, the Authority must prepare a report about its activities in that financial year.
The report must contain the following information in relation to that financial year—
an outline of the investigations conducted by the Authority;
a summary of complaints received;
an outline of all hearings conducted under section 24 of this Ordinance;
an outline of all proceedings brought before appeal tribunals.
As soon as practicable, and in any case within 6 months, after the end of each financial year of the Authority, the Authority must give the following documents to the Secretary—
a copy of its annual report prepared under section 20 of this Schedule;
a copy of its statement of accounts;
a copy of the auditor’s report on the statement of accounts.
The Secretary must arrange for the documents received under subsection (1) to be laid on the table of the Legislative Council.
The Director of Audit may, for any financial year of the Authority, conduct an examination into the economy, efficiency and effectiveness with which the Authority has used its resources in performing its functions.
For the purposes of conducting the examination, the Director of Audit may, at all reasonable times—
have full and free access to all accounts, records and documents in the custody or under the control of the Authority;
make a copy of the whole or any part of those accounts, records and documents; and
require a person who holds or is accountable for those accounts, records or documents to give any information or explanation that the Director of Audit considers necessary.
The Director of Audit may report to the President of the Legislative Council the results of the examination.
The Authority may establish a standing committee for hearing disciplinary matters under Part 5 of this Ordinance.
The Authority may also establish one or more than one committee (whether or not as a standing committee)—
to advise the Authority on any matters (within the scope of the Authority’s functions) that the Authority refers to it; and
to perform any functions of the Authority that the Authority delegates to it.
Every member of a committee is to be appointed by the Authority.
A committee must consist of at least 3 members.
A committee may include members who are not members of the Authority but, for a standing committee, a majority of the members must be members of the Authority.
The chairperson of a committee must be a member of the Authority.
When the Authority establishes a committee, it must specify, in writing, the terms of reference of the committee.
The Authority may, by written notice, amend the terms of reference of a committee.
Subject to section 48(9) of this Ordinance and any directions that may be given by the Authority, a committee may regulate its own procedure, including the determination of its quorum.
The Authority may, on application, issue—
a provisional PMP (Tier 1) licence; or
a provisional PMP (Tier 2) licence.
A provisional PMP (Tier 1) licence or provisional PMP (Tier 2) licence may only be issued to an individual.
A licence issued under this section is not transferable.
A licence issued under this section remains in force until the end of the period specified in it.
The period specified under subsection (4) must not be longer than 36 months beginning on the date on which the licence is issued.
In this section—
officer (高級人員) has the meaning given by section 2(1) of the Companies Ordinance (Cap. 622).An application for a provisional PMP (Tier 1) licence or provisional PMP (Tier 2) licence—
must be made within 36 months beginning on the date on which this section comes into operation;
must be made to the Authority in the specified form;
must contain the prescribed information; and
must be accompanied by the prescribed documents and application fee.
The Authority must not issue a provisional PMP (Tier 1) licence or provisional PMP (Tier 2) licence unless—
the Authority is satisfied that the applicant does not meet all the prescribed criteria for holding a PMP (Tier 1) licence or PMP (Tier 2) licence, but—
the applicant is a suitable person to hold the licence for which the applicant applies; and
the applicant meets all the prescribed criteria for holding the licence for which the applicant applies; and
the applicant has paid the prescribed fee for the issue of the licence for which the applicant applies.
For the purposes of subsection (3)(a)(i), in determining whether the applicant is a suitable person to hold the licence for which the applicant applies, the Authority must have regard to the following—
whether the applicant is a mentally disordered person, or a patient, within the meaning of section 2(1) of the Mental Health Ordinance (Cap. 136);
whether the applicant has been convicted of a criminal offence (other than an offence under this Ordinance) involving fraud or dishonesty;
whether the applicant has been convicted of a disciplinary offence or a criminal offence under this Ordinance;
whether the applicant is or was the sole proprietor of a property management company whose application for a PMC licence has been refused or whose PMC licence has been revoked or suspended;
whether the applicant is or was an officer of, or a partner in, a property management company whose application for a PMC licence has been refused or whose PMC licence has been revoked or suspended.
The Authority may impose on a licence issued under section 1 of this Schedule those conditions, including prescribed conditions, that it considers appropriate.
If the Authority decides not to issue a provisional PMP (Tier 1) licence or provisional PMP (Tier 2) licence, it must, by notice in writing given to the applicant within 21 days beginning on the date on which the decision is made—
notify the applicant of the decision; and
give reasons for the decision.
An applicant for a provisional PMP (Tier 1) licence or provisional PMP (Tier 2) licence who is aggrieved by a decision not to issue the licence may lodge an appeal.
Part 6 of this Ordinance, with necessary modifications, applies to an appeal under subsection (1) as it applies to an appeal under that Part.
The following provisions, with necessary modifications, apply to the holder of a licence issued under section 1 of this Schedule as they apply to a licensed PMP—
sections 12 and 13 of this Ordinance;
Parts 5 and 6 of this Ordinance;
section 63 of this Ordinance.
The Authority may, by regulation, prescribe—
the information to be contained in, and the documents to accompany, an application for a provisional PMP (Tier 1) licence or provisional PMP (Tier 2) licence;
the fees payable in an application for a provisional PMP (Tier 1) licence or provisional PMP (Tier 2) licence;
the criteria for holding a provisional PMP (Tier 1) licence or provisional PMP (Tier 2) licence;
the fees payable for the issue of a provisional PMP (Tier 1) licence or provisional PMP (Tier 2) licence; and
the conditions that may be imposed on a provisional PMP (Tier 1) licence or provisional PMP (Tier 2) licence.
The criteria mentioned in subsection (1)(c)—
may include criteria relating to the applicant’s academic qualifications, professional qualifications and relevant work experience; and
may impose more stringent requirements for a provisional PMP (Tier 1) licence.
(Omitted as spent—E.R. 1 of 2017)